Draft paper: "Can Linguistic Science Inform Theology?" by Brent Henderson

Started by Vineyard Scholars, April 04, 2015, 06:20 PM (Read 5650 times)

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Vineyard Scholars

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Last Edit: April 20, 2015, 12:23 AM by Jon Stovell

Here is a preview copy of Brent Henderson's seminar paper, "Can Linguistic Science Inform Theology? Some Prolegomena to a Theology of Language."

EDIT: The preview copy of this paper has expired. Check back soon for the final version.


John West

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Hey Brent,

Really fun and fascinating paper... I have re-read it a couple of times. Right now I am interested in finding out if I have any feel for the difference between communication and language ...

When the car in front me brakes and the brake lights go on would that be communication (that is delivery of information) but not language?

Would the kiss I plant on my children's head at night be non-verbal communication - but not non-verbal language?

And then this is where I get pretty confused:

"The idea that communication is the primary function and therefore raison d’etre of language is widespread in the literature on language evolution as well as the popular imagination. However, there is no empirical support for this position and several good arguments against it…"

and

"At some points, Van Hoozer seems cognizant of the fact that what he is really depending on is a theory of communication and not a theory of language, proposing to “take God’s Trinitarian self-communication as the paradigm of what is involved in all true communication.” Elsewhere, however, it is clear he is making the mistake of conflating communication and language, stating that “language is a gift from God for interpersonal communication and communion in the context of covenant.” He’s therefore comfortable rooting meaning in speech act theory alone and applying this to biblical interpretation on the assumption that anything in Scriptures (since it is language) is a communicative act…."

Intuitively to me it feels like all language must communicate ...I am wondering if you could help me with an example of language that would not be a communicative act, and perhaps specifically Scripture that would not be a communicative act? I guess another way I might ask this is -  can language be simultaneously both less than and more than communication?

Finally  I find this to be quite beautiful:

"This again (to me at least), pushes us in a rather Barthian direction, recognizing that scripture, though bearing witness to the self-revelation of God, is also written with the imprecise, complicated, limited (and fallen) tool called human language. Scripture therefore cannot be considered identical to God’s self-revelation, a designation only belonging to Jesus. This doesn’t make God’s self-revelation in Scripture useless or inaccessible to us, but it does mean that theological discourse can never be final or definitive. Theology is both necessary and impossible. Even though the words of scripture bear witness to the revelation of God in Christ, any reception of that revelation must be mediated by God himself through the Spirit to overcome the inherent limitations of language."

This is beautiful but raises the question for me of what do you see as the relationship between Revelation and communication and language?

John West
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Brent Henderson

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John. Thanks a ton for engaging. Let me try to clarify.

Yes, all those things you mention would be 'communication.' We communicate all sorts of information in all sorts of ways. Yes, we use language to communicate, but we also use our hairstyles and tennis shoes to communication and in not so dissimilar ways. I am assuming here that 'communication' means something like 'conveying information of some kind.' Now, if one redefines communication (as some communication theorists like John Searle do) to also include things like self-communication, then you could say communication includes language. However, I think then you've weakened the definition of 'communication' to mean basically anything you could use language to do, which isn't helpful.

There are many instances where language is not used for communicative purposes. One is internal monologue. Another might even involve writing a book that one has no intention of publishing or sharing (writers do this pretty often, I'm told). Another involves self-expression. I think a lot of facebook posting is this way - people post something to express themselves, but they really couldn't care less about what they are communicating or if their communication is successful. Language is something humans do. We almost can't not do it. Put strangers in a room together and tell them not to talk to each other. It gets very uncomfortable very quickly. So, they'll talk. But when they do, they aren't motivated by need to communicate. They're motivated by social norms, need to break the awkwardness, etc.

Now, when it comes to Scripture, I think you raise an interesting question, which is this: Can we take it for granted that all scripture is intended to communicate to us? I think we take it on faith that it is, and that is fine, but in making that move, I think its important that we recognize that we are affirming GOD'S intention to use it for communication and not necessarily the author's. Van Hoozer is constructing a theory of the author's intentions (or is trying to), but there's no guarantee that's going to line up with what God wants to communicate to us with Scripture. I love that Pete Enns will be at the conference. One thing he has done is show that part of authorial intent in writing some of the historical and mythical parts of the OT was political in nature: Israel needing to define its history in particular ways and against particular people (i.e., the Canaanites) to justify and understand their present socio-political situation. Thus, they weren't motivated simply to tell the truth of 'what happened,' but a particular version of what happened that serves particular purposes. I think the negative reaction to the work has been because we sense a conflict there between what we feel should be God's communicative intent (which should never include lying about historical facts) and the author's communicative intent (which involves, at the very least, strongly bending the historical facts). All that to say, it may be ok to assume that all Scripture is meant to communicate (in fact, I would say this), but I think we can't root that in the authors' intent to communicate. This again pulls me to what I understand to be a very Barthian view of Scripture - it isn't the language or words or intent of the author that makes Scripture Scripture, but rather the fact that God meets us there. My Bible on my shelf is just book written by people. It's only when I pick it up and engage it and God meets me there that it can become God's word.

I think that might help with your last question, too, though I'm not qualified to offer any kind of full answer to it. Peace!

PS - I read your paper as well. Makes a lot of sense to me and made me order 'Unclean.'


Daniel L Heck

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I'm interested in how this all might inform our thinking on hermeneutics, and hope to dig into this in more depth with you this week.

A good entry-point might be the paper's suggestion that Vanhoozer conflates language and communication when he says: "...language is a gift from God for interpersonal communication and communion in the context of a covenant." Now, Vanhoozer might conflate these things in his book, and it might introduce some kind of problem for his hermeneutics for all I know (I haven't read the book.) However, this example doesn't seem to represent conflation, to me. It seems to actually depend on the distinction between the two, if it is to mean anything. For example, the sentence looks very funny if it instead says, "Communication is a gift from God for interpersonal communication..." It also looks very funny if he says, "Language is a gift from God for language..." Beyond this, I don't think that very highly speculative ideas about the evolution of language have any relevance to Vanhoozer's statement. (And I love this paper. Nothing better than a bunch of top scholars in a field getting together to say, 'We really don't have a clue. Except we know that we know almost nothing.' http://journal.frontiersin.org/article/10.3389/fpsyg.2014.00401/full)

But for the sake of argument, let's say that we did know that interpersonal communication played absolutely no role whatsoever in making language biologically adaptive. Does that tell us anything at all about why God gave humans the gift of language? If so, why?
I'm picking at this point because it seems to me that there might be something under there that is worthwhile. For example, if Scripture is not to be understood as an act of interpersonal communication (at least, not solely in that way), how else should we understand it? Is it a self-expressive work of God that constitutes an end in itself, for example? If there is an important non-communicative aspect of Scripture, why do you want that? I think there might be something there.


Brent Henderson

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Yes, that paper is great (I cite it in the SVS paper). As you can imagine, lots of people hate it, lol.

To answer you question, not it doesn't tell us anything about why God gave humans the gift of language. For that, we should look at the design of language, perhaps, if we buy the idea that the purpose of a thing can be derived from its design. Language, at its core, seems designed for thought, not for communication. That was not really a point I was making directly in the paper, but I think it's a good speculation.

You're right it isn't right to say Vanhoozer (and I'm unfairly picking on him here, and only because he's done his homework the best of anyone on this topic) 'conflates communication and language.' Rather what I should say it he take communication to the be the chief (and sole, as far as I can tell) purpose of language. It ends up being a problem because it leads him to think he can ground his theory of meaning and hermeneutics in a theory of communication, which for him is a theory of authorial intent.

Like I said in reply to John above, I DO think we can take all of Scripture to have communicative intent, but this has to be God's intent, not the authors (though we can certainly take the author's intent seriously). I also think God's intent and some particular portion of Scripture may not always be one to one. God's may have a different intention for you as he does for me, or different intents for me at different times. It is actually language's inherently poor design for communication, as well as the fact that interpretation is active and not passive, that makes this sort of variability in communication possible. As I say in the paper, every sentence communicates more than the speaker intends and less than the speaker intends. I think this gives God the room to use scripture to communicate to us through revelation using scripture in the variable ways we experience.


Daniel L Heck

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Last Edit: April 13, 2015, 04:03 AM

I like this direction quite a bit...so to continue to polish and refine it, I would challenge this:

It is actually language's inherently poor design for communication, as well as the fact that interpretation is active and not passive, that makes this sort of variability in communication possible.

Variability in communication can also derive simply from intent, right? (Not that it is the only way, but I think there is a lot of flexibility that is being left on the table here, that we can recognize by reflecting on the author and intent.) For example, I can intend something ambiguously, or I can intend it to be flexibly interpreted, or I can intend very specific messages for a range of people. I can even intend for something to be interpreted in ways that I can't consciously intend...in fact, I usually do, when writing. For example, I often think to myself, "People will understand what I'm writing in ways that I can't understand are anticipate. That's one of the interesting things about writing, and I hope that my writing produces insights I couldn't have imagined...even better if I hear back from readers and learn something from the way they encountered it." It seems to me that God or the Bible's human sub-authors could easily have similar, layered and nuanced intentions.

Having said that, I agree with you that intention, alone, doesn't regulate the meaning of texts. Intention is an important part of understanding a particular type of meaning (specifically, intended meaning ;) ). But of course, texts also have unintended meanings, and linguistic expression is not always so intentional anyway. For example, when I write poetry, I'll often comb back over what I've written and find patterns and associations in the text that I didn't intend in any conscious way. I assume that these kinds of patterns are part of a non-intended 'system 1' function in the brain, as part of the non-conscious pattern-recognizing and pattern-making function of the brain. I'm confident that these meanings and associations are there in the text, and I'm also confident that I didn't "intend" them in any meaningful sense of the word. When I write poetry, I engage in a lot of self-communication. (And the word 'communication' here is, I think, very meaningful...even though it is also all intrapersonal.)

So anyway, I think God gives us a lot of room, too...and in a lot of ways :)


Brent Henderson

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I'd be curious to know what you think 'self-communication' means. I don't think it can mean the same thing as we mean by interpersonal communication, so I'm not sure it's helpful to call it communication.

Here's what I think you might mean by that, and something I stopped short of saying in the paper, but which I think is probably true of language: language is a way to make our thoughts available for introspection. It's the way we can think about our thoughts and attempt to understand them in a conscious manner. It's a way to bring some of what's going on below the surface to the surface. If that's the case, then language is primarily designed for "intrapersonal communication" (you really need a better term there - I think this makes the term 'communication' vacuous) than "interpersonal communication."


Daniel L Heck

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Personally, I think these semantic discussions are largely beside the point, in terms of anything that is theologically relevant. I may be wrong...some semantic discussions are really important! In this case, though, I'm mostly interested in why this is theologically or hermeneutically relevant more broadly.

Still, for my 2 cents, I think there is something communicated by "intrapersonal communication" that can't be expressed otherwise. Part of it is a sense of otherness with respect to oneself. Part of it is the fact that in writing, the language is externalized (from the self), and is experienced like other external language as a result. To be sure, intrapersonal communication is different from interpersonal communication. Here, though, I think the difference comes from the intra vs inter prefix, not from the word 'communication.' But be that as it may, I think the real prior question is, 'So what?' In some discussions, the notion might be useless. In others, I think it has unique and valuable expressive force. For example, if this is about speculating over whether language was selected for because of properties other than interpersonal communicative properties, I can see why it isn't worth the syllables to require an 'intra/inter' qualifier. That's fine. But if I'm trying to express the strange experience of interacting with my own writing, as if it was written by someone else, I think the phrase has some value! And for that matter, other people do as well: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrapersonal_communication. There exists a community of interesting speakers for which "intrapersonal communication" is considered a useful phrase.


Daniel L Heck

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Last Edit: April 13, 2015, 02:09 PM

I went ahead and put on my linguistic descriptivist hat and asked myself, "How do people use the word communication, in general?" It seems pretty clear that in the normal usage of the word, there is all kinds of intrapersonal communication.

For example, neurologists talk about neuron communication in professional journals: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1226318/

They also talk quite freely about parts of the brain communicating. (Like the hemispheres.)

If you want a special definition of communication that just means "communication between persons," or something like that, you're welcome to it. But I don't think the paper, above, has a vacuous title or a non-standard usage of the word...and apparently, the journal editors didn't think so, either. I think the paper's title quite clearly tells me something about intrapersonal communication.


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